National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX-RN) - 2023 Exam Dumps

NCLEX-RN Exam Format | Course Contents | Course Outline | Exam Syllabus | Exam Objectives

THE NCLEX-RN® EXAM

The National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX-RN® exam) has one purpose: To determine if it's safe for you to begin practice as an entry-level nurse. It is significantly different from any test that you took in nursing school. While nursing school exams are knowledge-based, the NCLEX-RN® tests application and analysis using the nursing knowledge you learned in school. You will be tested on how you can use critical thinking skills to make nursing judgments.



NCLEX-RN® TEST FORMAT

FRAMEWORK

The NCLEX-RN® exam is organized according to the framework, "Meeting Client Needs." There are four major categories and eight subcategories. Many nursing programs are based on the medical model where students take separate medical, surgical, pediatric, psychiatric, and obstetric classes. However, on the NCLEX-RN® exam, all of the content is integrated.



TYPES OF QUESTIONS

Questions are primarily multiple-choice with four possible answer choices; however, there are also alternate question types. Alternate question types include multiple-response, fill-in-the-blank, hot spots, chart/exhibit and drag-and-drop. All questions involve integrated nursing content.



Let's look at the following question:



A 23-year-old woman with insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) is returned to the recovery room one hour after an uneventful delivery of a 9 lb., 8 oz., baby boy. The nurse would expect the woman's blood sugar to



- rise

- fall

- remain stationary

- fluctuate


Is this an obstetrical question or a medical/surgical question- In order to select the correct answer, (2), you must consider the pathophysiology of diabetes along with the principles of labor and delivery.



SAFE AND EFFECTIVE CARE ENVIRONMENT

The first Client Needs Category, Safe and Effective Care Environment, includes two concepts:



Management of Care accounts for 17-23% of questions on the NCLEX-RN® exam. Some of the nursing actions included in this subcategory are Advanced Directives, Advocacy, Case Management, Client Rights, Concepts of Management, Confidentiality, Continuity of Care, Quality Improvement, Delegation, Establishing Priorities, Ethical Practice, Informed Consent, Legal Responsibilities, Referrals, and Supervision.



Safety and Infection Control accounts for 9-15% of exam questions. Nursing actions include Accident Prevention, Error Prevention, Hazardous Materials, Surgical Asepsis, Standard Precautions, and Use of Restraints.



HEALTH PROMOTION AND MAINTENANCE

The second Client Needs Category is Health Promotion and Maintenance. These questions account for 6-12% of the exam. Nursing actions tested include the Aging Process, Ante/Intra/Postpartum and Newborn Care, Developmental Stages and Transitions, Disease Prevention, Health Screening, Lifestyle Choices, Physical Assessment Techniques, Health Promotion Programs, High Risk Behaviors, and Self-Care.



PSYCHOSOCIAL INTEGRITY

The third Client Needs Category is Psychosocial Integrity. It accounts for 6-12% of the exam and tested nursing actions include Coping Mechanisms, Grief and Loss, Mental Health Concepts, Spiritual Influence on Health, Sensory/Perceptual Alterations, Stress Management, Support Systems, Therapeutic Communication, Chemical Dependency, Behavioral Interventions, Crisis Intervention, Coping Mechanisms, End of Life Care, and Family Dynamics.



PHYSIOLOGICAL INTEGRITY

The final Client Needs Category is Physiological Integrity. It includes four concepts:



Basic Care and Comfort accounts for 6-12% of questions on the NCLEX-RN® exam. Nursing actions included in this subcategory are Assistive Devices, Elimination, Mobility, Nonpharmacological Comfort Interventions, Nutrition and Oral Hydration, Personal Hygiene, as well as Rest and Sleep.



Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies accounts for 12-18% of the exam. Tested nursing actions include Adverse Effects, Contraindications, Blood and Blood Products, Central Venous Access Devices, Chemotherapy, Expected Effects, Intravenous Therapy, Medication Administration, Pharmacological Pain Management, Total Parenteral Nutrition, and Dosage Calculation.



Reduction of Risk Potential accounts for 9-15% of the exam. Its tested nursing actions include Diagnostic Tests, Laboratory Values, Potential for Complications from Surgical Procedures and Health Alterations, as well as Therapeutic Procedures.



Physiological Adaptation accounts for 11-17% of the exam. Its tested nursing actions include Alterations in the Body Systems, Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalances, Hemodynamics, Medical Emergencies, Pathophysiology, and Unexpected Response to Therapies.



NCLEX-RN® GRADING SYSTEM

PASS/FAIL

The NCLEX-RN® exam is pass/fail—there is no numerical score. A determination will be made at the conclusion of the exam as to whether you have passed or failed. However, the results will not be made available at the exam site. You'll be notified by your State Board of Nursing approximately 2-4 weeks after your test date.



Your first step is to submit an application to the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN). You will be required to follow the procedures established by the individual State Boards of Nursing. Some states have combined registration for the NCLEX-RN® exam with the application for licensure. In all other states, you must apply for licensure with the State Board of Nursing in the state in which you wish to become licensed. Once you have applied, you will receive a Candidate Bulletin to register for the NCLEX-RN® exam.

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National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX-
RN) - 2022
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Question: 122 Section 7
A 35-year-old client is admitted to the hospital for elective tubal ligation. While the nurse is doing preoperative
teaching, the client says, "The anesthesiologist said she was going to give me balanced anesthesia. What exactly is
that?" The best explanation for the nurse to give the client would be that balanced anesthesia:
A. Is a type of regional anesthesia
B. Uses equal amounts of inhalation agents and liquid agents
C. Does not depress the central nervous system
D. Is a combination of several anesthetic agents or drugs producing a smooth induction and minimal
complications
Answer: D
(A) Regional anesthesia does not produce loss of consciousness and is indicated for excision of moles, cysts, and
endoscopic surgeries. (B) Varying amounts of anesthetic agents are used when employing balanced anesthesia.
Amounts depend on age, weight, condition of the client, and surgical procedure. (C) General anesthesia is a drug-
induced depression of the central nervous system that produces loss of consciousness and decreased muscle activity.
(D) Balanced anesthesia is a combination of a number of anesthetic agents that produce a smooth induction,
appropriate depth of anesthesia, and appropriate muscle relaxation with minimal complications.
Question: 123 Section 7
A 29-year-old client is admitted for a hysterectomy. She has repeatedly told the nurses that she is worried about having
this surgery, has not slept well lately, and is afraid that her husband will not find her desirable after the surgery.
Shortly into the preoperative teaching, she complains of a tightness in her chest, a feeling of suffocation,
lightheadedness, and tingling in her hands. Her respirations are rapid and deep. Assessment reveals that the client is:
A. Having a heart attack
B. Wanting attention from the nurses
C. Suffering from complete upper airway obstruction
D. Hyperventilating
Answer: D
(A) Classic symptoms of a heart attack include heaviness or squeezing pain in the chest, pain spreading to the jaw,
neck, and arm. Nausea and vomiting, sweating, and shortness of breath may be present. The client does not exhibit
these symptoms. (B) Clients suffering from anxiety or fear prior to surgical procedures may develop hyperventilation.
This client is not seeking attention. (C) Symptoms of complete airway obstruction include not being able to speak, and
no airflow between the nose and mouth. Breath sounds are absent. (D) Tightness in the chest; a feeling of suffocation;
lightheadedness; tingling in the hands; and rapid, deep respirations are signs and symptoms of hyperventilation. This is
almost always a manifestation of anxiety.
Question: 124 Section 7
A client develops complications following a hysterectomy. Blood cultures reveal Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The nurse
expects that the physician would order an appropriate antibiotic to treat P. aeruginosa such as:
A. Cefoperazone (Cefobid)
B. Clindamycin (Cleocin)
C. Dicloxacillin (Dycill)
D. Erythromycin (Erythrocin)
Answer: A
(A) Cefoperazone is indicated in the treatment of infection withPseudomonas aeruginosa.(B) Clindamycin is not
indicated in the treatment of infection withP. aeruginosa.(C) Dicloxacillin is not indicated in the treatment of infection
withP. aeruginosa.(D) Erythromycin is not indicated in the treatment of infection withP. aeruginosa.
Question: 125 Section 7
A couple is experiencing difficulties conceiving a baby. The nurse explains basal body temperature (BBT) by
instructing the female client to take her temperature:
A. Orally in the morning and at bedtime
B. Only one time during the day as long as it is always at the same time of day
C. Rectally at bedtime
D. As soon as she awakens, prior to any activity
Answer: D
(A) Monitoring temperature twice a day predicts the biphasic pattern of ovulation. (B) Prediction of ovulation relies on
consistency in taking temperature. (C)
Nightly rectal temperatures are more accurate in predicting ovulation. (D) Activity changes the accuracy of basal body
temperature and ability to detect the luteinizing hormone surge.
Question: 126 Section 7
A client is having episodes of hyperventilation related to her surgery that is scheduled tomorrow. Appropriate nursing
actions to help control hyperventilating include:
A. Administering diazepam (Valium) 10�15 mg po q4h and q1h prn for hyperventilating episode
B. Keeping the temperature in the client�s room at a high level to reduce respiratory stimulation
C. Having the client hold her breath or breathe into a paper bag when hyperventilation episodes occur
D. Using distraction to help control the client�s hyperventilation episodes
Answer: C
(A) An adult diazepam dosage for treatment of anxiety is 210 mg PO 24 times daily. The order as written would place
a client at risk for overdose. (B) A high room temperature could increase hyperventilating episodes by stimulating the
respiratory system. (C) Breath holding and breathing into a paper bag may be useful in controlling hyperventilation.
Both measures increase CO2 retention. (D) Distraction will not prevent or control hyperventilation caused by anxiety
or fear.
Question: 127 Section 7
A client delivered a stillborn male at term. An appropriate action of the nurse would be to:
A. State, "You have an angel in heaven."
B. Discourage the parents from seeing the baby.
C. Provide an opportunity for the parents to see and hold the baby for an undetermined amount of time.
D. Reassure the parents that they can have other children.
Answer: C
(A) This is not a supportive statement. There are also no data to indicate the familys religious beliefs. (B) Seeing their
baby assists the parents in the grieving process. This gives them the opportunity to say "good-bye." (C) Parents need
time to get to know their baby. (D) This is not a comforting statement when a baby has died. There are also no
guarantees that the couple will be able to have another child.
Question: 128 Section 7
A pregnant client is having a nonstress test (NST). It is noted that the fetal heart beat rises 20 bpm, lasting 20 seconds,
every time the fetus moves. The nurse explains that:
A. The test is inconclusive and should be repeated
B. Further testing is needed
C. The test is normal and the fetus is reacting appropriately
D. The fetus is distressed
Answer: C
(A) The test results were normal, so there would be no need to repeat to determine results. (B) There are no data to
indicate further tests are needed, because the result of the NST was normal. (C) An NST is reported as reactive if there
are two to three increases in the fetal heart rate of 15 bpm, lasting at least 15 seconds during a 15-minute period. (D)
The NST results were normal, so there was no fetal distress.
Question: 129 Section 7
Which stage of labor lasts from delivery of the baby to delivery of the placenta?
A. Second
B. Third
C. Fourth
D. Fifth
Answer: B
(A) This stage is from complete dilatation of the cervix to delivery of the fetus. (B) This is the correct stage for the
definition. (C) This stage lasts for about 2 hours after the delivery of the placenta. (D) There is no fifth stage of labor.
Question: 130 Section 7
On the third postpartum day, the nurse would expect the lochia to be:
A. Rubra
B. Serosa
C. Alba
D. Scant
Answer: A
(A) This discharge occurs from delivery through the 3rd day. There is dark red blood, placental debris, and clots. (B)
This discharge occurs from days 410. The lochia is brownish, serous, and thin. (C) This discharge occurs from day 10
through the 6thweek. The lochia is yellowish white. (D) This is not a classification of lochia but relates to the amount
of discharge.
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NCLEX-RN 2023 Exam Questions

The Casper check Has Rolled Out gigantic changes For The 2023-24 Admissions Cycle

It’s no secret that pursuing a career in medication is totally competitive. because of the great variety of applications admission officers face each and every yr, they wanted a way to be trained more about the candidates past the numbers: GPA and standardized verify ratings.

Casper and Duet permits scientific colleges to be trained more about their applicants.

Acuity Insights presents assessment tools for some medical, dental, healthcare professional assistant, veterinary and direct scientific courses to consider their applicants enhanced. It presently offers two tests inside its suite: Casper and Duet. photo changed into in the past offered, however it is discontinued for the upcoming admissions cycle.

Duet permits students to exhibit that they have got identical values to the schools. Casper, as a situational judgment check (SJT), will allow college students to show their knowledge to address a tricky circumstance as the clinical colleges entry here characteristics:

because it changed into first implemented in 2015, Capser has grown in recognition as a way to check students' skill to be triumphant in these people-dealing with careers. For the 2023-24 admissions cycle, Acuity Insights revamped its choices to support provide colleges with a greater holistic view of their candidates.

The layout of this SJT experienced enormous alterations for the upcoming admissions cycle. before, students faced 15 eventualities, divided between video and notice-based passage sections.

Now college students will must address simply 14 sections in complete, reducing the volume of look at various-taking time from a hundred and ten-a hundred and twenty to approximately 90-a hundred and ten complete minutes, which contains the introduction, roughly eighty minutes of questions and two optional breaks.

The question order has modified. previously, students needed to answer 5 be aware-based passages and will take a 5-minute not obligatory ruin in the middle. earlier than relocating on to the video passage, they may take an further 10-minute ruin after which tackle the ten video passages.

Now, students will ought to answer the video prompts first. The reason behind this exchange changed into in case students bumped into technical difficulties with recording their responses, it could occur previous in the examine, and therefore they wouldn’t lose their outdated work.

during this first part, students should be introduced with six movies introducing a character, a drawback and the scholar's position within the circumstance. After gazing each brief video, college students could have one minute per question to respond. college students will provide typed responses for 2 scenarios, while four of the video clips will require recorded video responses, offered in a randomized order.

After the first section, students could have an non-compulsory 10-minute destroy.

here's a sample format of area 1:

Video scenario 1 - Video response

Video situation 2 - Typed response

Video scenario three - Video response

Video situation four - Video response

Video Passage 5 - Typed response

Video Passage 6 - Video response

optional 10-minute spoil earlier than continuing to part two.

previously, applicants had 5 be aware-based scenarios, however that quantity has been accelerated to eight. look at various-takers can be presented with a written state of affairs and must answer three questions inside five minutes. they will ought to listing a video reply for 5 eventualities, and the closing three would require a typed response. These situations will appear in random order.

here's a pattern structure of the text-based scenarios in part two:

Passage 1 - Video response to a notice-based situation

Passage 2 - Video response to a notice-based situation

Passage three - Typed response to a word-based mostly situation

Passage 4 - Video response to a note-based mostly state of affairs

not obligatory 5-minute ruin

Passage 5 - Video response to a notice-based mostly situation

Passage 6 - Typed response to a observe-based situation

Passage 7 - Typed response to a notice-based state of affairs

Passage eight - Video response to a be aware-based situation

The charge of taking the Casper additionally increased to $85, with seven distributions to colleges included in this payment. there is an additional charge of $16 per college if students need to distribute their rankings to others. The examination will still be taken on-line and can only be taken as soon as per cycle.

If students wish to reschedule the examination, they can do so at no cost 31 or more days earlier than the look at various date, with out a limit to the number of instances they could reschedule. in the event that they choose to reschedule within 30 days of the verify date, they can do so but need to pay a $20 charge. despite the fact, the rescheduling payment is waived if students adventure an authorized technical or clinical issue.

Duet is a worth-alignment assessment examination that will remain the same for the upcoming admissions cycle. To prepare for this component of the exam, college students may still evaluation the program's mission statement and values. college students could be judged on no matter if their values and people of the college fit. college students may be presented with 21 pairs for assessment. These pairs are damaged up into these categories:

When offered with the pairs, students must investigate which alternative is the most important to them. students are inspired to go together with their instincts as a result of there is no correct or wrong answer.

There isn't an extra charge required when registering for the Casper and Duet, and college students are inspired to take the Duet inside 14 days of taking Casper so colleges will receive scores simultaneously.

Like Casper, college students can only take the Duet once per admission cycle. If college students must reapply in a subsequent admissions cycle, they must retake Casper and/or Duet.

This providing from Acuity Insights Suite has experienced probably the most large change this cycle, as it has been completely discontinued. No faculties would require this one-manner interview for the 2023-24 cycle.

colleges requiring Casper are subject to exchange from 12 months to yr. determine each college's Casper coverage without delay on their web site.

Duet requirements are subject to change from year to year. determine each and every college’s Duet coverage directly on their site.

References

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